so if I have y"+y'-2y = 0 with y-> as x-> infinity, y(0)= 2 would I proceed here when it comes to the condition?
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Originally Posted by dankelly07 so if I have y"+y'-2y = 0 with y-> as x-> infinity, y(0)= 2 would I proceed here when it comes to the condition? i think you're missing something, y -> what as x -> infinity?
Oops yeah , with y-> 0 as x-> +infinity, y(0)= 2
Originally Posted by dankelly07 Oops yeah , with y-> 0 as x-> +infinity, y(0)= 2 The general solution is $\displaystyle y(x)=Ae^x+Be^{-2x}$ (I hope you know why). If $\displaystyle y \to 0$ as $\displaystyle x \to \infty, A=0$ and you should be able to finish from there. RonL
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