Can someone please explain to me why the derivative of ln(-x) is 1/x? Thanks!
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Originally Posted by otownsend Can someone please explain to me why the derivative of ln(-x) is 1/x? Thanks! For $x<0$, $\frac d {dx} \ln(-x) = \frac 1 {-x} \frac d {dx} (-x) = \frac 1 {-x}(-1) = \frac 1 x$.
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