Hi guys! My math skills are very poor, so i decided to post a thread and ask you about help. I can't solve it by myself. I am rookie poker player and my question is about Implied Odds. At the top will be description of the situation ( i took it from one poker site ) and after i will post a formula.

Implied Odds:

Imagine you’re playing a $1/$2 cash game and you have K♥️ Q♥️ on the turn in position. The board is A♥️ 6♦️ 2♠️ 9♥️ — giving you the nut flush draw — and your opponent bets $15 into a $20 pot.

A quick pot odds calculation ($15 to call / ($15 bet + $20 pot + $15 call) = 0.3) shows that you need more than 30% equity to profitably call. Since you only have a ~20% chance to hit the flush with one card to come, you would have to fold this handifno future action is taken into consideration.

This is where implied odds come in. Here is the formula for figuring out how much money you’d need to win on the river to justify a call on the turn:

You may notice that this is very similar to the formula for pot odds. The only differences are the added “X” in the denominator and your hand’s equity on the right-hand side of the equation. Now, let’s solve for ‘X’.

This means, when you hit the flush on the river with K♥️ Q♥️, you will need to win more than $25 to make the turn call profitable. Since the pot is already $50, you would only have to extract a half pot bet on the river on average. That result seems quite feasible, especially with the potential to win a huge pot in flush-over-flush situations. So, you should call on the turn in this hand.

My Question:

I didn't get how 25$ came out (X). Could you please explain to me like you would explain to your kid?