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Thread: Inequality of a function

  1. #1
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    israel
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    Inequality of a function

    Hi,
    Prove that for x>0:

    (x+1/x)arctan(x)>1
    Thank's in advance
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  2. #2
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    Re: Inequality of a function

    No need.Follows from mean value theorem of Lagrange...
    Thanks from topsquark
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