1. ## Help me prove this please. This is confusing me

Prove that if f is Riemann Integrable on [a,b] and m<=f(x)<=M for all x in the interval then m(b-a)<=integral from a to b f<=M(b-a)

2. ## Re: Help me prove this please. This is confusing me

Draw three graphs. (a) Graph y= f(x), (b) graph y= M, (c) graph y= m. You are told that m<= f(x)<= M for all x from a to b. Remember that the integral of a function is "the area under the graph".

3. ## Re: Help me prove this please. This is confusing me

Originally Posted by HallsofIvy
Remember that the integral of a function is "the area under the graph".
I did not know that? $\int_0^{2\pi } {\sin (x)} = 0$