Show that the improper integral of (x^(-p))(cos x)dx from 0 to 1 converges iff p < 1.
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
Originally Posted by allrighty Show that the improper integral of (x^(-p))(cos x)dx from 0 to 1 converges iff p < 1. I assume that in order to make it improper. Note that for we have . This means, . Why does it feel as it I did something wrong?
View Tag Cloud