prove lim as x approaches pi/2 of cos(x)cos(tanx) Why is the limit 1? My work so far: -costanx <= cosxcos(tanx) <= costanx -1 <= cosxcos(tanx) <= 1 (limit of costanx)
Last edited by lc99; Oct 8th 2017 at 08:54 PM.
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why is the limit 1?
Originally Posted by lc99 prove lim as x approaches pi/2 of cos(x)cos(tanx) Why is the limit 1? Why do you think the limit is $1~?$ See here.