how would i get sqrt [(1+x)/(1-x)] into an appropriate format for binomial expansion?

i know that i can turn it into sqrt (1+x)[(1-x)^-1], but then what do i do next i.e. what do i do with the sqrt?

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- Jan 30th 2008, 11:00 AMnmanik90binomial expansion
how would i get sqrt [(1+x)/(1-x)] into an appropriate format for binomial expansion?

i know that i can turn it into sqrt (1+x)[(1-x)^-1], but then what do i do next i.e. what do i do with the sqrt? - Jan 30th 2008, 11:04 AMbobak
$\displaystyle \sqrt{ \frac{1+x}{1-x} } = \frac{ \sqrt{1+x}}{ \sqrt{1-x}} = (1+x)^{\frac{1}{2}} (1-x)^{- \frac{1}{2}} $

- Jan 30th 2008, 11:06 AMTKHunny
Division? Partial Fractions?

$\displaystyle \frac{1+x}{1-x}\;=\;\frac{2}{x+1}-1$

Basic Principles?

$\displaystyle \frac{1+x}{1-x}\;=\;\frac{1}{1-x}+\frac{x}{1-x}$

Other choices? - Jan 30th 2008, 11:00 PMbadgerigarQuote:

Division? Partial Fractions?

$\displaystyle \frac{1+x}{1-x}\;=\;\frac{2}{x+1}-1$

- Jan 31st 2008, 01:52 AMCaptainBlack
- Jan 31st 2008, 02:15 AMangel.white
Can someone do the binomial expansion on their answer? I am confused by how this would work, and would appreciate an example.

- Jan 31st 2008, 02:37 AMCaptainBlack
- Jan 31st 2008, 03:15 AMangel.white
Thank you. I am still a little confused, my understanding is that the Binomial Expansion is this:

$\displaystyle (a+b)^n = \sum_{i=0}^{n} {n\choose i}a^{n-i}b^n$

So in this case, n=-1/2 and it is unclear to me how you can do a summation or a choose in this situation. - Jan 31st 2008, 04:32 AMmr fantastic
The good Captain is using the generalised binomial theorem ..... Another link

- Jan 31st 2008, 06:57 AMThePerfectHacker
I just want to add a little bit more. What you have is the finite binomial theorem when the exponent is an integer.

It has the form,

$\displaystyle (1 + x)^n = 1 + kx + \frac{n(n-1)}{2!}x^2+\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}x^3+...$

It**must be finite**because if $\displaystyle n$ is a positive integer then eventually among $\displaystyle n,n-1,n-2,n-3,...$ we hit zero, and the series shall terminate.

But if you think of $\displaystyle n$ as a non-integer then it will go on forever. And it will be the binomial (infinite) expansion. Which will converge to the function. - Jan 31st 2008, 09:16 AMCaptainBlack
That is only for positive powers (after you sort out the powers to give the actual expansion), but the binomial expansion works for any power.

The general form used here is:

$\displaystyle (1+x)^n= \sum_{r=0}^{\infty} \frac{(n)\times (n-1)\times .. \times(n-(r-1))}{r!} x^r$

Note if $\displaystyle n$ is an integer the coefficients are all zero for $\displaystyle r>n$.

You also have to worry about convergence for non-integer powers.

RonL