Originally Posted by
reakon Hi there,
I am going through a worksheet on Integral equations and a problem has arisen. I am up to having:
L[y](s)=2/(s-1)^2 and I need to find y(t). I know that the inverse Laplace transform rules state that 1/s^2 goes to t and that 1/(s^2+a^2) goes to
sin(at) but nothing of the form above.
Does anyone know If I am able to take 1/(s-1) as 1/u and get the inverse Laplace as u=s-1? I can't think of any other way unless there is a Laplace transform rule that I am not aware of.
Thanks for your help in advance, Chris