why does this end up looking like this (1-sqrtx)/(sqrtx(x-1))
i am having a brain fart need this for my exam
Hello,Originally Posted by tnkfub
here is a way to solve this problem without using the l'Hospital rule:
Substitute the x by (1+1/n) and calculate the limit for n approaching infinity:
After a few steps of very unpleasant transformation you'll get:
Hello,Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker
honestly speaking: No.
1. When you calculate the derivative you calculate for instance the limit
2. I made an analoguous conclusion to use this method with this problem. I noticed that it worked fine. But of course that isn't a proof.