I wonder if this is true or false, and how to proof it? If f(x,u)=k(c) when u=cx, then f(x,u) can also be written as f(x,u)=h(u/x). Thanks very much for the help!
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Originally Posted by WangTaoSG I wonder if this is true or false, and how to proof it? If f(x,u)=k(c) when u=cx, then f(x,u) can also be written as f(x,u)=h(u/x). Thanks very much for the help! It's true, and no proof needed. It's simply a variable substitution. -Dan
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