find the limit of the sequence: (n!) ^ (1/n) as n -> infinity
i don't even know where to start on this one. i think if i get a nod in the right direction i'd be able to get it, so can anyone here give me that nod?
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It could help to consider
Thus: and (this is enough for what you want to know, but do go on)
So we have
Now if you divide by and take the limit you get that, by the squeeze theorem
Use the following trick.
Let be a seqeuence of non-zero real numbers. If converges then converges to the same thing.
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