find the limit of the sequence: (n!) ^ (1/n) as n -> infinity i don't even know where to start on this one. i think if i get a nod in the right direction i'd be able to get it, so can anyone here give me that nod?
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It could help to consider
as Simply: Thus: and (this is enough for what you want to know, but do go on) And: Then and So we have Therefore: Now if you divide by and take the limit you get that, by the squeeze theorem
Use the following trick. Let be a seqeuence of non-zero real numbers. If converges then converges to the same thing.
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