here is the problem: an = cos(2/n^2) Do I divide top and bottom by n^2 to get cos(0) = 1 ? then it converges but I don't feel confident because I am not sure how to do this one, there is no example in the book to compare to. Thank you, Keith
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Originally Posted by keith an = cos(2/n^2) Do I divide top and bottom by n^2 to get cos(0) = 1 ? Do you know that ? If so, then you know that cos(0)=1. That is simply all there is to it.
Just remember what Plato did works here because cosine is a continous function.
Originally Posted by Plato Do you know that ? If so, then you know that cos(0)=1. That is simply all there is to it. Thank you, it just seemed too simple an answer, I just thought it was wrong.
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