laplace transform can be converted using this formula right?
that is where I got
can you help me solve that?? I tried many times but I can't seem to get it to work.
I also have another problem I couln't do.
problem: the absent-minded Dr. R claims that form a linearly independent set of solutions for the differential equation . Is he right? If so: how can we conclude that we can solve the IVP, with a function of the form where and are constants.
Remember that,Originally Posted by jenjen
They only differ by signs joining exponents. We need to show that for
Thus,
In other words thus,
Notice that for all for some . Thus, they are linearly independent.
Thus, the general solution to this differencial equation is,
Please next time start a new thread, if it is off topic.