I'm given an open set O, a closed set F, and an arbitrary set E; where E is a subset of O and F is a subset of E. Is it true that O~F = (E~F) union (O~E)?
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Originally Posted by director I'm given an open set O, a closed set F, and an arbitrary set E; where E is a subset of O and F is a subset of E. Is it true that O~F = (E~F) union (O~E)? I assume that by that you mean set difference. That is , if so then yes . You should try to prove that.
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