I'm given an open set O, a closed set F, and an arbitrary set E;

where E is a subset of O and F is a subset of E.

Is it true that O~F = (E~F) union (O~E)?

Printable View

- Nov 11th 2013, 07:13 AMdirectorA little bit of set theory
I'm given an open set O, a closed set F, and an arbitrary set E;

where E is a subset of O and F is a subset of E.

Is it true that O~F = (E~F) union (O~E)? - Nov 11th 2013, 08:08 AMPlatoRe: A little bit of set theory