Can I simply state that it tends towards 1/((e^inf)/inf) and therefore to 0, or is the limit not yet defined since it tends towards inf/inf below 1? Thanks.
Yes, you could use L'Hopital's rule. To find limits, you need some database of standard facts, e.g., as provided and . The fact that the where is one of those standard facts, but one has to prove it for the first time.
In both cases the limit is .
I myself find Prof. Ivey's post confusing. But his point is valid: the series approach gives that limit.
Interesting. I'm going to expand on this idea for my assignment (I hate regurgitating trivial information from a blackboard and I don't care if I get downgraded for veering off course)