Use the definition of a derivative at a point x=a. where the derivative of some function at a specified point is lim x->a (f(x)-f(a))/(x-a) to solve your problem
Hi,
In the plot below I have .
The second graph of the plot shows that, for x = 1, the plot of has an infinite slope at (called the Poisson non-linear propagation solution).
I'm trying to show this analytically but not getting the right answer. I reproduce my steps below.
We want to show that for , has an infinite slope, i.e. .
we have , so
What I'm trying to show is , but that's clearly not possible from my result above.
Keen to hear where I'm going wrong. Thanks
This is a double post of this thread. Please direct your comments to the original thread.
-Dan
@ShadowKnight8702: I'm doing a similar sort of thing but not getting the right answer. From post #1 I get an answer that won't tend to infinity under any circumstances.
@topsquark: The problem is more concisely put in this thread.