Hi. I have problem with this integral. Thanks in advance.
Hi,
i hope this is true!
if we changed the order of integration assuming neither any of of y, rho,t are functions at phi, in this case we cane reverse the order of integration with respect to phi first. then substituting sin(phi)=x this means that integrating from 0 to 2*pi will give zero with respect to x, so the integral=0.
mopen