Hey guys Im not sure how to do this and would be delighted with any help. I was thinking simplifying (f -1 o f)(x) and then chain rule.
Suppose that (a, b) to(c, d) is a bijection,and that f is differentiable on (a, b). Assuming that this implies that the inverse function
f -1 : (c, d) to (a, b) is differentiable on (c, d), show that if y0 element of(c; d) and x0= f -1(y0) then,
(f -1)'(y0) = 1/f '((f -1)(y0)), if f '(x0) is not 0