oh, i know why. it's because the mean value theorem.
and.. the precise definition is that there is an m>0, and n>0, so that for every x larger than m, f(x) larger than n.
oh, i know why. it's because the mean value theorem.
and.. the precise definition is that there is an m>0, and n>0, so that for every x larger than m, f(x) larger than n.
i guess i can show that. but i don't know what does that imply...
and what about my way? to say that and that way show the right of the definition above.
i guess i can show that. but i don't know what does that imply...
and what about my way? to say that and that way show the right of the definition above.