hello! im having some trouble with this question which is due in tomorrow: is it necessarily true that int(AuB)=int(A) u int(B)? im not sure how to construct a proof as i seem to keep just stating it with out proving it. Please help!
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Let and . Then and so but and .
how is int(AuB)= (0,1) surely int(AuB) would equal {} as well . i think i need to prove that this statement is true?
sorry i forgot to mention that A and B are subsets of R.(real numbers)
You have been shown that the proposition is false. Here is a more mundane example. BUT
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