why is lim x->pi f(x)=0?

(does it have something to do with the fact that lim x->0 of sinx/x equals 1?)

Results 1 to 7 of 7

- March 29th 2013, 03:42 AM #1

- Joined
- Mar 2013
- From
- israel
- Posts
- 70

- March 29th 2013, 04:44 AM #2

- March 29th 2013, 04:53 AM #3

- Joined
- Mar 2013
- From
- israel
- Posts
- 70

- March 29th 2013, 04:56 AM #4

- March 29th 2013, 05:13 AM #5

- Joined
- Mar 2013
- From
- israel
- Posts
- 70

- March 29th 2013, 05:39 AM #6

- Joined
- Oct 2009
- Posts
- 5,546
- Thanks
- 781

- March 29th 2013, 06:08 AM #7

- Joined
- Mar 2013
- From
- israel
- Posts
- 70