why is lim x->pi f(x)=0?
(does it have something to do with the fact that lim x->0 of sinx/x equals 1?)
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You can use L'H˘pital's rule
Originally Posted by Ruun For
You can use L'H˘pital's rule i didn't learn this rule yet, and i suppose i'm not allowed to use it before i do.
is there another (may be complicated, but regular) way to solve this?
Do you know how to solve limits?
no, i don't..
(i acctually thought it can't be done and we must change the function's form to solve this... so it can be done?)
thank you so much!
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