Let, be a real valued function definited for all reals. Proof (or disproof) that is there exists a function such as is true for all reals. Then, is always true.

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- March 9th 2006, 07:31 PMThePerfectHackerCommutativity of Inverse Functions.
Let, be a real valued function definited for all reals. Proof (or disproof) that is there exists a function such as is true for all reals. Then, is always true.

- March 10th 2006, 04:46 AMCaptainBlackQuote:

Originally Posted by**ThePerfectHacker**

normal functiom, then is mapped one one onto

, and so there is an inverse function from

onto

Then holds for all but not for all

That is the domains of and are not equal.

RonL