for all x,y in Real Number , that x > y , then there exists a number Z , such that x<z and z < y.
I concluded this is a false statement because the inequality would be Z > x > y > Z which make no sense, but how to disprove this?.
please help~
for all x,y in Real Number , that x > y , then there exists a number Z , such that x<z and z < y.
I concluded this is a false statement because the inequality would be Z > x > y > Z which make no sense, but how to disprove this?.
please help~