Ok tell me if I'm wrong for (k)
I got 1(0) = 0
No, the behavior of f(x) near x = -1 is irrelevant to this question. What matters is the behavior of f(x) near x = 1. Moreover, it is not enough to say that $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to1}f(x)$ does not exist. If f(x) were 1 instead of 0, then $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to1}f(x)$ would still not exist, but $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to-1}f(g(x))$ would exist.