Let f : R -> R be a continuous function such that f(x + 1) = f(x), for all x. Then f attains its supremum. Is this statement true or false?? Give reasons...???
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
Well, f attains its supremum on [0,1]...
could you please elaborate
See the extreme value theorem. And the values of f on are the same as on [0, 1].
View Tag Cloud