Hi,
i need to prove or disprove the following:
thanks in advanced!
*edit:
both sets are bounded from above.
I've found the following to be useful:
supremums of larger sets are larger and infimums of larger sets are smaller
Formally, (assuming the sets are bounded):
1. Ifthen
2. Ifthen
Proof of 1 - Let. Let
, then
and so
; i.e.
is an upper bound of
. So
. The proof for infs is exactly similar.
For your original question, since,
, and similarly for B.