Dr. Math discusses why ...
Math Forum - Ask Dr. Math
In my AP Calculus class, we had a lengthy discussion regarding the indeterminate form . Other bases to infinity either turn out to be infinity itself or 0, depending on the base. To me, that doesn't make sense. Why are quantities, such as , are determinate, but is not? Just want to hear some opinions.
1^Infinity is and indeterminate fore because infinity is not a real number. There are no rules for how exponentiation works on something that isn't a number. Plus x=1^infinity is like you are saying infinity*ln(1) which doesn't exist.