I integrated the function to become
ln x / (x^2)
u = lnx
du = 1/x
dv = 1/x^2
v = -1/x
UV - int VDU
lnx * -1/x - - int of 1/x^2 becomes -1/x
so
- lnx/x - lnx (or close to this)
So where the hell does this mystical one come from? It looks as if it'd be divergant from this!!! Please help!!!!!!!
Makes more sense, Thanks But wouldn't the ln b / b (since it's approaching infinity) be indetirminate so it would be divergant. My original mistake was that I integrated the second half twice by accident, but I still don't get how you can just "ignore" ln b /b since ln(infinity) doesn't equal 0 or anything.
Oh... is it bc the top is growing slower than the bottom so its just a really small number over a big one and thus goes to zero? Simple Alg. + early Calc skills holding me back