is this done by cos(e^3)-cos(e^1)
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is a constant; it does not depend on x. Therefore, its derivative with respect to x is zero.
The answer emakarov gave is correct, but I'll bet you copied the question incorrectly. Either that or you got a trick question. Did you perhaps mean ? By the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, it is equal to .
it was a trick question, thanks!
what if it were defined on from 2 to x would we still have cos e^x as the derivative of the integral?
Originally Posted by kingsolomonsgrave what if it were defined on from 2 to x would we still have cos e^x as the derivative of the integral? Yes.
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