Thread: derivative of a definite integral

is this done by cos(e^3)-cos(e^1)

is a constant; it does not depend on x. Therefore, its derivative with respect to x is zero.

The answer emakarov gave is correct, but I'll bet you copied the question incorrectly. Either that or you got a trick question. Did you perhaps mean ? By the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, it is equal to .

- Hollywood

it was a trick question, thanks!

what if it were defined on from 2 to x would we still have cos e^x as the derivative of the integral?

MH

Originally Posted by kingsolomonsgrave

what if it were defined on from 2 to x would we still have cos e^x as the derivative of the integral?

Yes.