I have a functionwith first-order derivatives
and second-order derivatives
.
Additionally I know that the degree of homogeneity of the function is larger thanbut smaller than
.
In an economics paper I found the statement that given these assumptions the derivative ofwith regard to
is negative if the first-order derivative with regard to
is held constant:
Why is this so?
I understand that I can decomposeinto
Now, I would have to show thatbut I don't know how to do that using
and the information about the degree of homogeneity.


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