Originally Posted by

**johnsomeone** It is x(0) = 1 if x(t) = cos(t).

Although it's not how to usually do it, in this case, if that's basically the form you're seeking, make it x(t) = sin(t), y(t) = cos(t) in order to have x(0) = 0.

Though again, who knows what this problem is asking, so who knows if that's a reasonable answer. Surely not me.

Edit:

Yes - that's right. That makes the problem much more clear.

$\displaystyle F(t) = (\sin(t), \cos(t), 2\sin^2(t)), \text{ or } \vec{F}(t) = \sin(t)\hat{i} + \cos(t)\hat{j} + 2\sin^2(t)\hat{k}, \text{ is what I bet they're looking for.}$