Thread: why is arcsin of t = to pi/2?

so arcsin of infinity is pi/2?

How is that figured?

You mean to use the inverse tangent function, but ask yourself, what is ?

oh i see now! tan goes to infinity at pi/2 and negative infinity at -pi/2 so the inverse tan of infinity is therefore pi/2

and the inverse tan of negative infinity would be -pi/2

is that right?

Yes, that is spot on!