so arcsin of infinity is pi/2?
How is that figured?
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You mean to use the inverse tangent function, but ask yourself, what is ?
oh i see now! tan goes to infinity at pi/2 and negative infinity at -pi/2 so the inverse tan of infinity is therefore pi/2
and the inverse tan of negative infinity would be -pi/2
is that right?
Yes, that is spot on!
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