Originally Posted by

**Bean** I thought I knew how to do this but I keep coming up with the wrong answer. Here is what I've done:

$\displaystyle y=x^\tan(x) $

$\displaystyle ln y= tan(x) ln x $

$\displaystyle \frac{1}{y}*\frac{dy}{dx}= \tan(x)*\frac{1}{x} +ln x*sec^2 x $

Then multiply with the original y to get:

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx}= x^{\tan(x)} * (\frac{tan(x)}{x}+ ln x*sec^2 x) $

But the answer I'm seeing has $\displaystyle x^{\tan(x)-1} $ in there instead of the original y value.

Any help would be appreciated.