I stumbled upon this somewhere but didn't know how to prove it.
Anyone have any ideas why this is the case or how to derive it? I suspect it has something to do with the gamma function.
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I stumbled upon this somewhere but didn't know how to prove it.
Anyone have any ideas why this is the case or how to derive it? I suspect it has something to do with the gamma function.
The Stirling's approximation of x! for large x is :
(x^x)*exp(-x)*sqrt((2x+(1/3))*pi) equivalent to (x^x)*exp(-x)*sqrt(2*pi)*sqrt(x)
Ah, yeah when I look at that closely it works. Thanks
o.O Could you elaborate on how you arrived at that series? Unless you are extending JJacquelin's answer by inputting Stirling's formula then I'm confused.. and isnt this rather a Laurent series?