Hi, i can't solve this, please if someone can solve and show me the steps (:
P is the partition.
Thanks for all the answers (:
so let ln(x) be f-1(x) so ex=f(x)
F-1(x)=xf-1(x)-F(f-1(x))
so= x(ln(x)- eln(x) = xln(x)-x evaluated at e and 1
which should be 1
if you haven't seen the equation before look at the geometry between a function and its inverse... they add up to make a rectangle.
I also don't know what the partition thingamabobs are but the answer is 1


Yes, that is easy to integrate but I suspect Simple Man is asking about the Riemann sum that will give that integral. The partition is. Those values for x make it easy to find the corresponding "f(x)":
. However, it is also makes the interval lengths variable- the length of the first interval is
, the second
, etc.
The Riemann sum will bewhich is, of course, the same as
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