The problem I have is $\displaystyle \lim_{{x}\to{0}}\frac{cosx - 1}{x^2}$

I know I have to use the squeeze theorem, by implementing the range of the cosine function; but when I do that I get

$\displaystyle \frac{-1}{x^2}\leq\frac{cosx}{x^2}\leq\frac{1}{x^2}$

But that would imply the original limit would go to approach zero, but that is certainly not what the answer key attests. Am I setting up my range wrong?