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Thread: Sequence of functions convergence.

  1. #1
    Newbie dttah's Avatar
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    Sequence of functions convergence.

    Alright I am having some trouble with this topic.

    Let:

    f_{n}(x) = log(1 + \frac{1}{n(x-1)}) x belonging to ]1,+infinity[

    I have to study pointwise and uniform convergence.
    So I'd like to start with the pointwise and here it is:

    \lim_{f_{n}(x) \rightarrow +\infty} = log1 = 0

    So f_{n}(x) ----> converges pointwise to f(x) = 0

    Now I have to check the uniform convergence, so I'd begin this way:

    sup|f_{n}(x) - f(x)| \rightarrow 0 = sup|f_{n}(x)| \rightarrow 0

    Okay, here is where I am stuck, what do I have to do now? Do I have to take the first derivative respect to x and make it equal to zero? I am very confused. Thank you!
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  2. #2
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    Re: Sequence of functions convergence.

    Your computation of pointwise convergence is correct: for any given x \in ]1;\infty[, you have
    \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = f(x) = 0
    As to the uniform convergence, you need to check the limit
    \lim_{n \to \infty} \sup_{x \in ]1;\infty[} |f_n(x)-f(x)| = \lim_{n \to \infty} \sup_{x \in ]1;\infty[} |f_n(x)|
    What is the supremum here? Clearly, for values of x approaching 1 from above, the function f_n(x) is unbounded. In fact,
    \lim_{x \downarrow 1} f_n(x) = \infty
    Therefore,
    \sup_{x \in ]1;\infty[} f_n(x) = \infty
    from which we conclude that the convergence is not uniform (but only pointwise).
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  3. #3
    Newbie dttah's Avatar
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    Re: Sequence of functions convergence.

    What if we get a restriction to an interval such as [a,+infinity[ with a > 1 , is the convergence uniform in that case?
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    Re: Sequence of functions convergence.

    Yes. In such case, the supremum (maximum) would be attained at x = a because f_n(x) is positive and monotonically decreasing in x:
    \sup_{x \in [a;\infty[} f_n(x) = \log\left(1+\frac{1}{n(a-1)}}\right)
    And this expression tends to zero for n \to \infty.
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  5. #5
    Newbie dttah's Avatar
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    Re: Sequence of functions convergence.

    Alright thank you, I understand. So could you (if I am not asking too much) tell me what are the "usual" steps to take ? When do I have to take the first derivative? Thanks
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  6. #6
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    Re: Sequence of functions convergence.

    I wouldn't know of any "usual steps". The procedure is roughly the same every time you need to check uniform convergence: look out for singularities or discontinuities (emerging in the limit n \to \infty) and check if they lead to a failure of uniform convergence. I am not sure what you mean by "first derivative". There is no differentiation involved in what we have discussed above.

    I recommend you keep in mind the two typical textbook examples where uniform convergence fails:

    f_n \colon ]0;1] \to \mathbb{R}, x \mapsto \begin{cases} 1-nx \quad &\text{for} \  0<x<\frac{1}{n} \\ 0 \quad &\text{for} \ \frac{1}{n} \leq x \leq 1  \end{cases}

    f_n \colon ]0;1] \to \mathbb{R}, x \mapsto \begin{cases} 1 \quad &\text{for} \  0<x<\frac{1}{n} \\ 0 \quad &\text{for} \ \frac{1}{n} \leq x \leq 1  \end{cases}

    In a similar way, both series fail to be uniformly convergent. That is because, although we are eventually locked down to zero for every x (pointwise convergence), near 0 there always remains some little jump up to the value 1, which is such that the supremum of f_n is always 1 and will never go down to zero.

    Note that the former function is continuous (like a bezel, or a ramp on the floor), while the latter function is discontinuous (like a step). So in the former case, the failure of uniform convergence goes along with an ever-increasing slope (the "first derivative" you may have meant), while in the latter case, it goes along with a discontinuity which is not resorbed for n \to \infty.
    Last edited by jens; May 8th 2012 at 07:19 AM.
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