Thread: inverse

Hi , please help me.

is it true Always?




I dont know. because i see




when is it ??

thanks

f(x)=x^2 isn't one to one for all x and so doesn't have an inverse for all x. You need to restrict x to a given domain over which it is one to one
For example f(x)=x^2, x>0.

Originally Posted by biffboy

f(x)=x^2 isn't one to one for all x and so doesn't have an inverse for all x. You need to restrict x to a given domain over which it is one to one
For example f(x)=x^2, x>0.

thanks . if f is one to one then is it true always?

Yes it is.