I don't know if this is particular part is calculus or not but this was on a calculus test. It was the last step of a third derivative question. I lost a mark because the teacher says (x^2-1)/x^2 is more simplified than 1-(1/x^2).. is this fair? Is there an official rule that states (x^2-1)/x^2 is more simplified? This is making a common denominator for no damn reason, nothing cancels and it looks more complicated than before. Normally I wouldn't care about one mark but I was getting 100 in the course and that section was only out of 8 so now my mark is going to plummet for no reason.. -_-

