Originally Posted by

**wong999** I would like to ask about this integral:

integral from 2 to infinity [ ln x /(exp(x) +1) ]

I think it diverges, but I don't know how to show it diveges.

first, I thought [ ln x /(exp(x) +1) ]can't be integrate,

so I considered if it can be proved by comparing it with simpler integral.

I had try to find a smaller integral and then prove it diveges,

hence it could conclude that integral from 2 to infinity [ ln x /(exp(x) +1) ] also diveeges.

However, I could't think out such these smaller integral.

So how can I proved it, or it actually converges?

Please help me.