I have a question about an proof, specifically, properly handling the inequality at the end.
Let be given. Let .
(1) Then implies
We know that for all , hence (4) above implies
Now, my question involves this line. Clearly this line above is not equivalent to , which is what we're trying to show. For my formal proof to be complete, how do I go from here?
Could I say something like:t
Is that even a true statement, and if so, is that how you do this proof?
Thanks for your help.