Hi guys,
I have a question about anproof, specifically, properly handling the inequality at the end.
Prove that
Letbe given. Let
.
(1) Thenimplies
(2)implies
(3)implies
(4)![]()
We know thatfor all
, hence (4) above implies
Now, my question involves this line. Clearly this line above is not equivalent to, which is what we're trying to show. For my formal proof to be complete, how do I go from here?
Could I say something like:t
Is that even a true statement, and if so, is that how you do this proof?
Thanks for your help.


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