A computer gives the answer as , but by hand, I seem to be getting a non-converging integral. What am I doing wrong? Since for result to be non-zero, we have: Which does not converge.
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Originally Posted by VinceW A computer gives the answer as , but by hand, I seem to be getting a non-converging integral. What am I doing wrong? Since for result to be non-zero, we have: Which does not converge. You're meant to assume sin(t) = 0 for t < 0. In which case the answer is 1 - cos(t).
Why? I don't see any validity behind that assumption at all.
Originally Posted by VinceW Why? I don't see any validity behind that assumption at all. Well, I guess it will depend on whether t < 0 makes sense in the context from which the question has come, won't it.
Originally Posted by mr fantastic Well, I guess it will depend on whether t < 0 makes sense in the context from which the question has come, won't it. You are not helping with this problem. This is a pure math problem so of course t < 0 makes sense. I'm wondering whether that convolution genuinely doesn't exist for and a converging convolution only exists for
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