Is it possible to prove the following $\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)\;g(x)\;dx = \int_a^b g(x)\;f(x)\;dx$ I know it's true but how do you prove this? Thanks.
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Originally Posted by x3bnm Is it possible to prove the following $\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)\;g(x)\;dx = \int_a^b g(x)\;f(x)\;dx$ I know it's true but how do you prove this? Thanks. Is that really what you mean? If f and g are real or complex valued functions it follows from commutativity of multiplication. CB
Originally Posted by CaptainBlack Is that really what you mean? If f and g are real or complex valued functions it follows from commutativity of multiplication. CB Thanks CaptainBlack. That answers my question.