Thread: Problem:Commutative property of definite integral

1. Problem:Commutative property of definite integral

Is it possible to prove the following

$\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)\;g(x)\;dx = \int_a^b g(x)\;f(x)\;dx$

I know it's true but how do you prove this? Thanks.

2. Re: Problem:Commutative property of definite integral

Originally Posted by x3bnm
Is it possible to prove the following

$\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)\;g(x)\;dx = \int_a^b g(x)\;f(x)\;dx$

I know it's true but how do you prove this? Thanks.
Is that really what you mean?

If f and g are real or complex valued functions it follows from commutativity of multiplication.

CB

3. Re: Problem:Commutative property of definite integral

Originally Posted by CaptainBlack
Is that really what you mean?

If f and g are real or complex valued functions it follows from commutativity of multiplication.

CB

Thanks CaptainBlack. That answers my question.