Is it possible to prove the following

$\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)\;g(x)\;dx = \int_a^b g(x)\;f(x)\;dx$

I know it's true but how do you prove this? Thanks.

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- Aug 16th 2011, 05:33 AMx3bnmProblem:Commutative property of definite integral
Is it possible to prove the following

$\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)\;g(x)\;dx = \int_a^b g(x)\;f(x)\;dx$

I know it's true but how do you prove this? Thanks. - Aug 16th 2011, 05:57 AMCaptainBlackRe: Problem:Commutative property of definite integral
- Aug 16th 2011, 06:20 AMx3bnmRe: Problem:Commutative property of definite integral