Last edited by Amanda-UK; August 22nd 2007 at 03:38 AM. Reason: missed a bit
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A Maclauren series for a function is just the Taylor series at an argument of 0. So for : etc. So -Dan
Originally Posted by topsquark A Maclauren series for a function is just the Taylor series at an argument of 0. So for : etc. So -Dan would you be able to go into more detail wit this please?also stuck on B thank u Amandax
Now the second one show that and have different signs. That means, by intermediate value theorem there is a number so that .
Originally Posted by Amanda-UK would you be able to go into more detail wit this please? Amandax More detail with what? What specifically are you having a problem with? -Dan
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