1) is correct
you can show that sin x divided by x goes to zero as x goes to infinity
by the squeeze theorem
2) can be done by L'Hopital's Rule. Have you seen that yet?
Otherwise you can let u=pi/2-x and shift this.
Some questions regarding limits:
1-
In this case, can I say that :
1- )
I mean, I know that when x approaches infinite does not exist, but since it will have a maximum range of 1~-1 I can say it is aproximadely 0?
2- )
Here I dont have a single clue on how to do, seriously.
Thanks in advance.
1) is correct
you can show that sin x divided by x goes to zero as x goes to infinity
by the squeeze theorem
2) can be done by L'Hopital's Rule. Have you seen that yet?
Otherwise you can let u=pi/2-x and shift this.