Hi all I'm probably missing something, it's not obvious that g(n) = O(f(n)) for all n (I don't see how 2^1000 boundaries of g(n) make any different here) ?
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Originally Posted by Nivg Hi all I'm probably missing something, it's not obvious that g(n) = O(f(n)) for all n (I don't see how 2^1000 boundaries of g(n) make any different here) ? Yes, , but is that what the question is asking for? The wording seems pretty obscure. Could it want something like: and and so . Also you probably are expected to justify CB
ok thanks didn't think it through.
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