Originally Posted by

**joatmon** Thanks. I had played with trying to squeeze this out, but couldn't get it to work.

So, my logic about why the limit is zero isn't correct. I had thought that, since the function $\displaystyle cos^4(x)$ is always between 0 and 1, which we know even without using the squeeze theorem, what forces the limit to zero is that the denominator becomes infinitely large.

But what I think that you are saying is that the denominator has nothing to do with it. It's that $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to \infty } \cos^4(x)$ can be shown to be zero by using the squeeze theorem.